They have common factors of 1 and 2
1 is a factor of every nonzero number, so 42 would have it in common with any other number.
43 is a prime number so the common factors of 43 and 42 are 1
The greatest number that both 42 and 56 are divisible by is their greatest common divisor (GCD). To find the GCD, we can list the factors of each number: the factors of 42 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21, and 42; the factors of 56 are 1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 14, 28, and 56. The largest common factor is 14, so the GCD of 42 and 56 is 14.
The least common multiple of 8 and 42 is one.
Any multiple of 378.
The least common multiple of 8 and 42 is 168.
8 does not divide 42 evenly so 42/8 is not a whole number.
The greatest common factor of 2 , 8 , 42 , and 70 = 2
The GCF of 8, 42, and 78 is 2.
Multiples of 42"Common" requires more than one number... ...multiples of 42 are 84, 126, 168, 210, etc.But there would have to be another number in order for 42 to have a common multiple.
Their least common multiple is 42.
Least Common Multiple (LCM) for 8 42 is 168.
21 x 48 = 1008
112*3=42*8=336
128
Yes.
There are different ways to write the answer: n+n+8 = 42 or 2n + 8 = 42