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1 and 17

You start by "prime factorizing" one of the numbers. It doesn't matter which one ( or, at least, unless you've done factoring for a while). We'll factorize 68, because it's even and thus we know it's divisible by 2.

68/2 = 34

34/2 = 17

Thus, 68 can be rewritten as a product of 2 * 2 * 17.

Now, 51 is an odd number, so it can't have 2 as a factor. By process of elimination, the factor must be 17, right?! Wrong! 1 could be the only factor the two have in common (which reminds me, you can probably write "1" for this problem!). But anyways, we should check 17:

51/17 = 3 with 0 remainder.

17 is a factor of 51, and we've determined it's also a factor of 68 from above. Thus it's a factor of both.

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8y ago

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More answers

1, 3, 17, 51

1, 2, 4, 17, 34, 68

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12y ago
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Q: What number is a factor of both 51 and 68?
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