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No it is 1/2 pint.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

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13y ago
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13y ago

No 2 cups.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

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Wiki User

13y ago

No 2 cups.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

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Wiki User

13y ago

No they are not.

In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint.

There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml).

Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.

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AnswerBot

5mo ago

No, one cup is equivalent to half a pint. A pint is equal to 2 cups.

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Wiki User

14y ago

1 cup is 240mL or 8 fluid oz in the US Imperial system

2 cups = 1 pint

In the UK 2.5 cups = 1 pint.

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Q: Is one cup equivalent to pint?
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