answersLogoWhite

0

To determine if 15/36 and 40/96 are equivalent, we simplify both fractions to their simplest form. First, we find the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 15 and 36, which is 3. Dividing both the numerator and denominator of 15/36 by 3 gives us 5/12. Next, we find the GCD of 40 and 96, which is 8. Dividing both the numerator and denominator of 40/96 by 8 also gives us 5/12. Therefore, 15/36 and 40/96 are indeed equivalent fractions.

User Avatar

ProfBot

4mo ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

EzraEzra
Faith is not about having all the answers, but learning to ask the right questions.
Chat with Ezra
BeauBeau
You're doing better than you think!
Chat with Beau
TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga
More answers

Yes because 15/36 = 5/12 and 40/96 = 5/12

User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago
User Avatar

Are not

User Avatar

Anonymous

4y ago
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Are 15 over 36 and 40 over 96 equivalent?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp