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Yes, the GCF of a # doesn't have to be either of the 2 #'s. In the case of 16 and 42 the GCF is 2 because that is the greatest # that both the numbers are equally divisible by. If it was 16 and 48, then the GCF would be 16 because that is the highest # both are equally divisible by.

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Q: Can GCF of 16 and 42 be less than 16?
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Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less 16 explain why?

Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF in this case has to be less than 16.


Can the GCF of 16 and 42 be less than 16 Explain?

yes... 16 is not a factor of 42 GCF is 2


Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 be less than 16 why?

The only rule is that the GCF has to be equal to or less than the lower number. Since 16 is not the GCF of 16 and 42, the GCF has to be lower than 16.


Why is the gcf of 16 and 42 be less than 16?

2


Why can 16 and 42 be less than 16?

because 16 is not a factor of 42 and the GCF is 2.


Can the gcf of 156 and 42 be less than 16?

It can be and is.


Can you explain why the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 is less than 16?

It can be and is. Since 16 is not a factor of 42, the GCF will have to be a factor of 16 that is less than 16.


Can the gcf of16 and 42 be less than 16?

Yes.


Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be than less 16 explain?

It must be less than or equal to the smallest of the set of numbers whose GCF you are trying to obtain. So it must be less than or equal to 16. Furthermore, it is not 16 because 16 is not a factor of 42. Therefore, it must be less than 16.


Can the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 be less then 16?

Yes, the greatest common factor of 16 and 42 can be and is less than 16. The GCF of 16 and 42 is 2..


Can the cgf of 16 and 42 be less than 16?

Assuming you meant the GCF (greatest common factor). Yes - since the GCF of 16 & 42 is 2 !


Can the gcf of 16 and 42 be less that 16?

It can be and is.