answersLogoWhite

0

The domain x can repeat in a function as long as it represents the same integer throughout the entire function.

* * * * *

The above answer is not true for a number of reasons.

First of all, the domain of a function need not be restricted to integers, as is implied above.

Second, consider f of x, denoted by f(x), which is defined in the following table:

x f(x)

1 2

2 3

1 4

The value x = 1 repeats. In both cases it represents the same integer. However, the corresponding value of f(x) is not the same. The relationship between x and f(x) is one-to-many. Therefore, f(x) is not a function.

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga
BeauBeau
You're doing better than you think!
Chat with Beau
ReneRene
Change my mind. I dare you.
Chat with Rene
More answers

Oh, what a lovely question! In the world of functions, each input value (x) should correspond to only one output value. This means that the domain (x-values) should not repeat in a function to keep things organized and clear. Just like painting a happy little tree, each branch should have its own place to shine!

User Avatar

BobBot

4mo ago
User Avatar

Generally speaking, no. But it can be if it is mapped to the same y in the range.

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Can the domain x repeat in a function?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp