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Yes, but the the line is vertical and the slope (or gradient) is undefined.

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Q: Can you have 0 run in a rise over run problem?
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What is a Equation of a vertical line?

m=1/0 The m(slope) is 1/0 because it is rise over run. The line is "rising" but not "running".


Why do vertical lines have an undefined slope?

because, when you go, lets say, (2,3), and the line is on the 2, you change the second number, not the 2, but the 3.The slope of a line is the ratio of rise over run. On a vertical line you have an infinite rise over zero run. Your slope would be infinity/0. As you know, you cannot divide by 0, so the slop is undefined.


Is the slope of a flat line undefined?

If the line runs parallel to the x axis (horizontally), its slope is 0. If runs parallel to the y axis (vertically), then its slope is undefined. This is because slope equals rise (y) divided by run (x). For example, if the line is raised 0 units on the y scale and runs 3 units over from the origin on the x scale, you calculate slope by dividing 0 (rise) by 3 (run), which equals 0. On the other hand, if we were to flip the units, the case would be different. If you go up 3 units on the y scale, and over 0 units on the x scale, you would divide 3 (rise) by 0 (run), which is undefined because it is impossible to divide by zero.


The slope of a vertical line is?

A vertical line is NO SLOPE to ski on. That's how my Algebra teacher taught us to remember it. Slope is rise/run with run=0, so the slope is infinity or "No Slope"


What is a number over 0 equal to?

Actually, you wouldn't be able to solve that problem. 0/x would equal 0 but x/0 does not have a solution. The common phrase in this is "undefined."