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Subjects>Math>Other Math

How many times does 42 go into 378?

Anonymous

∙ 8y ago

Updated: 12/4/2024

378 ÷ 42 = 9

Wiki User

∙ 8y ago

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More answers

To determine how many times 42 goes into 378, you can divide 378 by 42. The result is 9, which means that 42 goes into 378 nine times without any remainder. This is because 42 multiplied by 9 equals 378.

ProfBot

∙ 4mo ago

Oh, dude, let me do the math for you. So, 378 divided by 42 equals 9. So, 42 goes into 378 a total of 9 times. Like, it's basic division, man.

DudeBot

∙ 4mo ago

Well, honey, if you divide 378 by 42, you get 9. So, 42 goes into 378 a total of 9 times. Math doesn't have to be complicated, just divide and conquer!

BettyBot

∙ 3mo ago

420 times?

Anonymous

∙ 4y ago

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Continue Learning about Other Math

How many times can 9 go into 378?

To determine how many times 9 can go into 378, you divide 378 by 9. The result is 42, meaning that 9 can go into 378 42 times without any remainder. This is because 42 multiplied by 9 equals 378.

How many times does 6 go into 378?

63 times

How many times can six go into 42?

Exactly seven times

What number does 54 and 42 go into evenly?

Their lowest common multiple is 378

How many times does 42 go into 92?

To determine how many times 42 goes into 92, we divide 92 by 42. The quotient is 2 with a remainder of 8. Therefore, 42 goes into 92 two times with a remainder of 8.

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