No because if a=4 and b=4 then a=b and not a can equal 6 and not b can equal 5 so ~a is not = to ~b
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Fractions A/B and C/D are equivalent if the cross-multiples are equal. That is, is A*D = B*CFractions A/B and C/D are equivalent if the cross-multiples are equal. That is, is A*D = B*CFractions A/B and C/D are equivalent if the cross-multiples are equal. That is, is A*D = B*CFractions A/B and C/D are equivalent if the cross-multiples are equal. That is, is A*D = B*C
If a divides b and b divides a then either a is equal to b or a is equal to -b. Additional note: if a divides b, there exist a p such that ap=b. and if b divides a, there exist a q such that a=bq. then ap=(bq)p=b => b(1-pq)=0 => pq=1 since b!=0 => p=q=1 or p=q=-1 => a=b or a=-b
2(b+h)
It is because a/b does not necessarily equal b/a. If this were true, then a2 = b2, which implies a = +/- b, which does not have to be true.Likewise, subtraction is not commutative, because a-b does not have to be equal to b-a. Here, subtraction is anticommutative because a-b = -(b-a).
a + b = a - bSubtract a from each side:+ b = - bThe only way that 'b' can equal its own negative is if b=0.So (a + b) can equal (a - b) only if b=0.(It doesn't matter what 'a' is.)