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Usually, it's here that we're talking about a limit. So, it's not that something divided by infinity (which is not actually a number) is equal to 0, it's that as the limit as n approaches infinity, you'll get zero. So, take lim (n approaches infinity) of 1/n. You could plug some immensely large number in for n (say, 1,000,000,000 - which is getting large but not as big as infinity). If you divide 1 by this number, you're gonna get something so small, you could call it zero. So, it's not that we're dividing by infinity, we're approaching infinity - so plug some huge numbers in and see that you get really really close to zero.

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Q: If p divided by q form gives defined result where q not equals 0 then why something divided by infinity is zero?
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What is the value of infinite?

1 time infinity equals infinity. Infinite divided by infinite equals 1. There's your answer. * * * * * Except that it is not true. 1 times infinity is, indeed, infinity. But infinity divided by infinity need not be 1. See for example, the paradox of Hibert's Hotel at the attached link.


One divided by 0 equals infinity no?

The answers is 0.


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0 is your answer (not a number close to zero). Or mathematicially more precise: approaches zero. Remember that infinity is not a number but is is treated as if it is something larger than any number. If we divide 1 by bigger and bigger numbers, then the quotient get closer and closer to 0, therefore 1 divided by infinity is zero. We can even say that 1 divided by negative infinity equals zero because if we divide 1 by a negative million, or negative billion, etc. the quotient goes to 0.


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An example of something being divided by something equalling 73 would be 219 divided by 3.


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What is something divided by 7 equals 9?

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