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Is 0.42 equals 4.2 percent

Anonymous

∙ 15y ago

Updated: 11/28/2024

No, 0.42 is not equal to 4.2 percent. To convert a decimal to a percentage, you multiply by 100. In this case, 0.42 as a percentage would be 42 percent. So, 0.42 is equal to 42 percent, not 4.2 percent.

ProfBot

∙ 4mo ago

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What times what equals 1764 that should equals 84?

42 x 42 = 1764 42 + 42 = 84

What is 42 over 1000 in simplest form?

Using standard algebraic notation, "42 over 1000" in its simplest form is 42/1000. Its reduced value would be 21 / 500 or .042 .

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2.31/42 x 100 = 5.5 percent.

What number is 42 percent of 150?

42 percent of 150 is 0.42*150 or 63. And conversely, 150% of 42 is 63 as well.

What are the eight related addition and subtraction equations for the numbers 48 42 6?

48=42+648-6=4248-42=648-42-6=042-48=-66-48=-4248+42+6=9642-6=48-12These are some possible answers.

Is 0.42 equals 4.2 percent

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Add your answer:

What times what equals 1764 that should equals 84?

What is 42 over 1000 in simplest form?

What percent of 42 is 2.31?

What number is 42 percent of 150?

What are the eight related addition and subtraction equations for the numbers 48 42 6?

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