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NO!!! As a matter of fact, unless the function is a one-to-one function, where each x in the domain has one and only one image in the range and no y in the range is the image of more than one x, then it won't ever be a function after being inversed. Just remember to switch the x's and y's with each other and then solve for y to get the inverse. If you don't believe me, then use then graph the function and then its inverse and do the vertical line test on both.

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Q: Is an inverse of a linear equation always a function?
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