answersLogoWhite

0

Yup, they're both 1/2.

Given 6/12 and you find that you can divide the numerator and the denominator by the same number and still preserve the value of the original fraction. We find 2 goes evenly into 6 and 12 giving the new fraction 3/6. Now we find that we can divide this fraction's numerator and denominator evenly by 3 and still not change the value of the original fraction. The new fraction is 1/2.

Now let us look at 2/4. By employing the same argument, 2 goes evenly in the numerator and denominator yielding 1/2.

Indeed six twelfths is the same as two fourths.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

DevinDevin
I've poured enough drinks to know that people don't always want advice—they just want to talk.
Chat with Devin
SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve
RossRoss
Every question is just a happy little opportunity.
Chat with Ross

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Is six twelves equivalent to two fourths?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp