21 over 42, as a fraction, is 1/2. As a division problem, it's .5
Well for this all you need to do is divide 42 by 5. So 5 goes into 42, 8 times with a remainder of 2. So that would be 8*5 = 40 + 2
Divide it by 7 to get 2 over 5
210The prime factorization of35 = 5*742 = 2*3*7So the LCM is the smallest number that both 35 & 42 will divide into evenly.So, 2*3*5*7 = 210
Divide by 2 32 / 40 = 16 / 20 Divide by 2 16 / 20 = 8 / 10 Divide by 2 8 / 10 = 4 / 5 Answer: 4 / 5
Divide each part by 42, to give 2 over 5.
Divide them both by their GCF, 21. Get 2/5
No, 5 is not a factor of 42. A factor of a number divides it evenly with no remainder. When you divide 42 by 5, it does not divide evenly and leaves a remainder of 2. Therefore, 5 is not a factor of 42.
42 / 82/5 = 42 / (42/5) = 42 * (5/42) = 5 You seem to be unaware of the fact that you could have obtained the answer much more easily and quickly by using the calculator that comes as part of your computer.
2/7 = 12/42 5/6 = 35/42 12/42 + 35/42 = 47/42 or 1 and 5/42
2 over 5 as a decimal is 0.4. You have to divide 2 by 5 to get the answer. Put the 2 inside and the 5 outside
You divide 2 by 5.
Yes: 42/105 = 2/5
22/5 = 42/5
1/5
47/42 that's the wrong answer the right answer is: 1 5 or 1.11904761904762 ..42
21 over 42, as a fraction, is 1/2. As a division problem, it's .5