Please rephrase question.
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago21 over 42, as a fraction, is 1/2. As a division problem, it's .5
Divide it by 7 to get 2 over 5
210The prime factorization of35 = 5*742 = 2*3*7So the LCM is the smallest number that both 35 & 42 will divide into evenly.So, 2*3*5*7 = 210
Divide by 2 32 / 40 = 16 / 20 Divide by 2 16 / 20 = 8 / 10 Divide by 2 8 / 10 = 4 / 5 Answer: 4 / 5
Well for this all you need to do is divide 42 by 5. So 5 goes into 42, 8 times with a remainder of 2. So that would be 8*5 = 40 + 2
Divide each part by 42, to give 2 over 5.
No, 5 is not a factor of 42. A factor of a number divides it evenly with no remainder. When you divide 42 by 5, it does not divide evenly and leaves a remainder of 2. Therefore, 5 is not a factor of 42.
Divide them both by their GCF, 21. Get 2/5
42 / 82/5 = 42 / (42/5) = 42 * (5/42) = 5 You seem to be unaware of the fact that you could have obtained the answer much more easily and quickly by using the calculator that comes as part of your computer.
2/7 = 12/42 5/6 = 35/42 12/42 + 35/42 = 47/42 or 1 and 5/42
To write 2/5 as a decimal, divide 2 by 5. The result is 0.4.
You divide 2 by 5.
Yes: 42/105 = 2/5
1/5
22/5 = 42/5
47/42 that's the wrong answer the right answer is: 1 5 or 1.11904761904762 ..42
First, find out if you can divide it by 2, 3, 4, or 5. If you can, then both the numbers by that, and keep going until you can't divide the numbers anymore by whole numbers. 12 6 2 42 IS DIVISIBLE BY 2 21 IS DIVISIBLE BY 3 7 So 2/7 is your final answer! HOPE THIS HELPED!