That is the last year of the 16th century
Third century BCE
1911
1/100 of a century equals one year. One hundred years equal a century.
There are 365 days in a year, and 7 days in a week, so there are 52 weeks in a year with one day left over. If it is a leap year, the same number of weeks, but with two days left over. Notice that with the pattern of leap years, and not including the exempt century years, there are exactly 1461 weeks in any 28-year period.
The 15th
1492 was the year Christopher Columbus came to the Americas.
He came to America in 1492.
1492 CE is the 15th century. This is because just like there was no year "0," there was no 0th century. 01-100 CE is the first century, 101-200 is the second, and so on. A common misconception is that the century ticks from one to the next on the transition of years from '99 to '00. Since there was no year "0," the century mark actually changes from '00 to '01.
1789 was part of the 18th century. Because the first century started with the year 1, the next century starts in the year 100. This means to tell what century the year was part of, simply add 100 to the year. For example the year 1492 took place during the 15th century.
The year 1492 The year 1492
There was no year '0 AD'. The first century ended after the year 100. The second century began with year 101 and ended after the year 200. Likewise the 20th century ended after the year 2000, not after 1999.Hope this answers your question.
1692. a century is 100 years, so two centuries would be 200 years. Two hundred years added to 1492 would be 1692.
Ithink it is in the 15th century. To help you recognise a century that a particular year falls in, add 1 to the number thet the year begins with for example. 1347 is in the 14th century because 13 + 1 =14 this rule has exceptions for example 2000 is still in the 20th century. this is because it is the last year of the century
The year of his fist voyage was 1492.
its 1492
Exactly one century before the last millennium was 900. This millennium started with 2001.