Not always
yes, a graph of a direct variation must pass through the origin because direct variation is always in form of y=mx where x and y are variables and m is a constant.
It must be a straight line. It must pass through the origin.
The formula direct variation is xk=y, where k is the constant of variation.Direct variation functions always pass through the origin. Direct variation functions are linear functions (goes in a straight line), except that they pass through the origin. Regular linear functions don't pass through the origin. That is the only difference.
The graph must be linear and pass thru the origin
Inverse variation does not pass through the origin, however direct variation always passes through the origin.
Not always
yes, a graph of a direct variation must pass through the origin because direct variation is always in form of y=mx where x and y are variables and m is a constant.
The graph must be a straight line, and it must pass through the origin.
no
Assuming both the scales on the graph are linear (that is to say that the numbers go up evenly) then YES, a graph which shows direct proportion must be a straight line. It must also pass through the origin (0,0). A straight line which does not pass through the origin is NOT showing direct proportion. Duncan
It must be a straight line. It must pass through the origin.
The formula direct variation is xk=y, where k is the constant of variation.Direct variation functions always pass through the origin. Direct variation functions are linear functions (goes in a straight line), except that they pass through the origin. Regular linear functions don't pass through the origin. That is the only difference.
The graph must be linear and pass thru the origin
For a direct variation, y=kx where k is the constant of variation if x =0 then y=0 and the graph of y=kx passes through the origin. -Indiana Prentice Hall Algebra 2 Text Book.
If the question is about a pendulum, the answer is that it should. However, the square-root of the length is directly proportional to the length so that the relationship between the two variables is not linear but quadratic. If the graph is extrapolated accordingly, then it will. There may still be an element of measurement error which may prevent the graph from going exactly through the origin.
No, in general, the force vs acceleration graph does not always pass through the origin. This is because there may be a non-zero force acting on an object even when it is at rest. The presence of a non-zero force at rest would lead to a non-zero intercept on the force vs acceleration graph.