I guess your question is:
∀ x ∈ ℤ with x ≥ 0, prove x² + 4x + 3 = p (where p is a prime) implies that x = 0.
Re-arrange and solve the quadratic:
x² + 4x + 3 = p
→ x² + 4x + (3 - p) = 0
→ x = (-4 ±√(4² - 4 × 1 × (3 - p)) / 2
→ x = -2 ±√(4 - 3 + p)
→ x = -2 ±√(p + 1)
As x ≥ 0, only the positive square root of (p + 1) is possible (otherwise x would be less than 0), thus:
x = √(p + 1) - 2
As x ∈ ℤ, p + 1 must be a perfect square (otherwise √(p + 1) is irrational and x ∉ ℤ).
Now, the difference of two squares is:
a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)
If b = 1, this becomes:
a² - 1 = (a + 1)(a - 1)
→ a² = (a + 1)(a - 1) + 1
Thus all perfect squares are one more than the product of one less than their square root with one more than their square root.
All prime numbers have the factors 1 and themselves.
Thus, the only perfect square that is one more than a prime is when the square root is one more than 1, ie 1 + 1 = 2, giving:
2² = (2 + 1)(2 - 1) + 1 = 3 × 1 = 3 + 1 = a prime plus one.
(any higher perfect square is always one more than a compound number as:
a>2 gives: (a + 1) > 2, (a - 1) > 1 and (a + 1)(a - 1) is the product of two different numbers, neither of which is 1, thus the product is a compound number)
Therefore the only solution possible is when the perfect square is one more than the prime 3, ie:
x = √(p + 1) - 2 = √(3 + 1) - 2 = √4 - 2 = 2 - 2 = 0.
QED.
prove that the following two sets are equal A=set of prime factors of 36 B=set of prime factors of 108 r
You prove that the two sides (not the bases) are equal in length. Or that the base angles are equal measure.
Because like all prime numbers it has only two factors which are itself and one
It isn't equal, and any proof that they are equal is flawed.
In a perfect number, the sum of all the factors (including the number itself) is twice the number. E.g., the sum of the factors of 6 is 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12 (equal to 2 x 6). Every prime number has two factors: 1, and itself. So, the sum of the factors is only one more than the prime number itself; for any number greater than 1, this can't be twice the number. For example, the prime number 7 has the factors 1 and 7, which add up to 8.
For every prime number p greater than 2, p + 1 is composite.
prove that the following two sets are equal A=set of prime factors of 36 B=set of prime factors of 108 r
You prove that the two sides (not the bases) are equal in length. Or that the base angles are equal measure.
You cannot prove that because it's false
To prove that 61 is a prime number.
prove any two adjacent triangles as congruent
you dont silly :)
Differentiability implies continuity This is easy to prove using the limit of the difference quotient
Odysseus implies that he doesn't need the gods. Poseidon wants to prove to him that he does.
Because like all prime numbers it has only two factors which are itself and one
It isn't equal, and any proof that they are equal is flawed.
Yes. To prove this, we must first assume the answer to be no. If there are a finite number of primes, there must be a largest prime. We'll call this prime number n. n! is n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*3*2*1. n!, therefore, is divisible by all numbers smaller than or equal to n. It follows, then that n!+1 is divisible by none of them, except for 1. There are two possibilities: n!+1 is divisible by prime numbers between n and n!, or it is itself prime. Either way, we have proved that there are prime numbers greater than n, contradicting our initial assumption that primes are finite, proving that the number of primes is infinite.