No. In mathematics, infinity is not strictly defined as a comparable entity, since it is not defined.Opinion: Even if it would be considered comparable, infinity would equal infinity and thus not be less than itself.
The name "Google" was chosen from the word "googol," a mathematical term coined by Milton Sirotta, nephew of American mathematician Edward Kasner, for the number represented by 1 followed by 100 zeros. A googol, or google, represented a very large number and reflected the company's mission to organize the immense, seemingly infinite, amount of information available on the World Wide Web. I'm not sure but as i was told by some people that Google was mis-spelt because there were two creaters where one of them was a Russian and he had wrote Google instead of Googol. I'm not sure if this is a true fact.
1 time infinity equals infinity. Infinite divided by infinite equals 1. There's your answer. * * * * * Except that it is not true. 1 times infinity is, indeed, infinity. But infinity divided by infinity need not be 1. See for example, the paradox of Hibert's Hotel at the attached link.
Yes or at least i think it is! correct me if im wrong
Yes. They have a density of infinity
its not true guys just stop believing it is and give up *Improvement:* A Google is not a number. A googol has 100 zeros. The Oxford English Dictionary notes that googol is not in formal mathematical use.
First off, infinity is not a number in conventional mathematics. In Calculus, you can work with infinity through the language of limits. It is important to note that when we use the shorthand: ∞/∞ What we are REALLY saying is "the limit of a function which diverges to infinity divided by the limit of a function which diverges to infinity". We are not actually saying "infinity divided by infinity". Now that THAT is out of the way, we can get to the answer. ∞/∞ is of indeterminate form, meaning that the division could converge to 0, it could converge to 1, it could converge to an arbitrary constant, or it could diverge to infinity. In order to figure out which of these cases is true, you need to apply L'Hospital's rule, by taking the derivative of the numerator and the denominator (separately).
the question is correct as per me because this is wat is known"1/0=infinity" then" 1=0xinfinity" " 0x(anything or infinity) =0" there fore "1 =0" which is not true since 1/0 is not equal to infinity the value of 1/0 is undefined
0 is absolutely nothing. Infinity is absolutely everything. So, no. Although there are some interesting mathematical phenomena that seem to make this true (2/0=x) they are not equal.
No, it can be written. According to the official Answers.com definition, it is "The number 10 raised to the power googol, written out as the numeral 1 followed by 10100 zeros."
No.Unless the slope is zero, every line will extend from minus infinity to plus infinity. So part of it will be negative and part positive.No.Unless the slope is zero, every line will extend from minus infinity to plus infinity. So part of it will be negative and part positive.No.Unless the slope is zero, every line will extend from minus infinity to plus infinity. So part of it will be negative and part positive.No.Unless the slope is zero, every line will extend from minus infinity to plus infinity. So part of it will be negative and part positive.
Nope. It's still under ownership of Treyarch and Infinity Ward