If a number is divisible by both three and four, it's divisible by twelve.
0 is divisible evenly by any non-zero number.
A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible both by 2 and 3 1240 is even then is divisible by 2 1+2+4+0 = 7 which is not divisible by 3 then 1240 is not divisible by 3 Thus 1240 is not divisible by 6
No. 1+9+6=16, which is not divisible by 3; 1+4+6=11, which isn't divisible by 3 either. No. 1+9+6=16, which is not divisible by 3; 1+4+6=11, which isn't divisible by 3 either.
It is divisible by 3. I'm not sure of anymore.
50
48.
1500 = 30 * 50
Evens or 50/50 as either 2 or 4 or 6 (all divisible by 2) or 1 or 3 or 5 (not divisible by 2)
First, let's find the multiples of 3 between 40 and 50. You can tell if any number is divisible by 3 by adding the digits and seeing if those are divisible by 3. (30 => 3+0 =3, thus 3 is divisible by 3. 31 => 3+1 =4, thus 31 is not.) We see that 40 and 41 are not divisible. What about 42? 4+2 = 6 which is divisible by 3, thus 42 is divisible by 3. Multiples of 3 must by 3 apart, so we can find the others by adding 3 to 42: 45, 48 Since the next number divisible by three is 51, we stop here. What about divisible by 4? Since 40/4 =10, we know 40 is divisible by 4. We can again add 4 to find the others: 44, 48. Thus we have the multiples of 3 between 40 and 50: 42, 45, 48 and the multiples of 4: 40, 44, 48. Since they have 48 in common, Sue must have been thinking of 48.
No. 50 is divisible by these numbers: 1, 2, 5, 10, 25, 50.
The number is 48.
the number is 48
there are 17 divisible by 3 between 50 to 100 , 51,54,57,60,63,66,69,72,75,78,81,84,87,90,93,96,99
It divides exactly by 3, but not 4.
No since only numbers in which its sum can be divisible by 3 is divisible by 3. 2 + 4 + 4 is 10, and 10 is not divisible by 3.
No, because the last 2 digits are not divisible by 4. 50 is not divisible by 4 so No!