Oh, dude, let me blow your mind with this one. So, the number that goes into both 42 and 70 is 1. Yeah, that's right, the good ol' number 1 can divide both of those bad boys without any remainder. Like, it's the unsung hero of division, just quietly doing its thing while all the other numbers get all the attention.
sixty assuming 70 means 70% 60 x 70% = 42
42
I assume you are asking what 60% of 70 is. If so, multiply 70 x .60 to find. (70 x .60 = 42). 60 is 42% of 70.
The only whole number that goes into "7" evenly is 7.The number "7" also goes into the number "70" evenly (10x7=70).
Just break the words down into mathematical symbols. 70%=.7, we will call the unnamed number X. So you have (.7)X=42, divide by .7 to get X=42/.7 or X=42(10/7)=420/7=60.
sixty assuming 70 means 70% 60 x 70% = 42
To find 70 percent of a number, multiply the number by 0.7. In this instance, 0.7 x 60 = 42. Therefore, 70 percent of 60 is equal to 42.
The largest number that will divide into 28 42 and 70 with no remainder is 14.
14....it goes into 42 three times and into 70 five times.
The number 1 goes into both 17 and 42. In this instance, one goes into each number exact the same number of times as the original number like 17 or 42.
42 / .60 = 70
The greatest common factor of 42 and 70 is 14.
42
I assume you are asking what 60% of 70 is. If so, multiply 70 x .60 to find. (70 x .60 = 42). 60 is 42% of 70.
The only whole number that goes into "7" evenly is 7.The number "7" also goes into the number "70" evenly (10x7=70).
Just break the words down into mathematical symbols. 70%=.7, we will call the unnamed number X. So you have (.7)X=42, divide by .7 to get X=42/.7 or X=42(10/7)=420/7=60.
An infinite number of of multiples of 42 can be divided by 42.