The median and mode.
Chat with our AI personalities
No they are not the same in a unimodal symmetrical distribution and they will never be
No, it is in general not true - for example for uniform distribution on [0,1] every number in the interval is a mode, but the mean is 1/2. The correct answer would be that a symmetric unimodal distribution has one mode equal to the mean (but may have modes elsewhere).
for symmetrical distributions your mean equals the median. that is one of the properties of the symmetrical distribution.
Normal distribution is a perfectly symmetrical bell-shaped normal distribution. The bell curve is used to find the median, mean and mode of a function.
yes it is true