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Well the short answer is that your chances are pretty slim. The long answer:

The total number of 13-card hands is 52-choose-13, which equals 52! / (13! * 39!). Any hand without any pairs must have exactly one of each value from 2 to ace. All there is to choose is the suit of each card, for 413 possible pairless 13-card hands. The probability of choosing one of these hands is the quotient of these two numbers, or 413 * 13! * 39! / 52!, which equals 4194304/39688347475, approximately 0.00010568 or 1 in 9462. Another explanation:

Say the first card in your hand is an ace. For the second card, you have to avoid the other three aces in the deck. There are 51 cards, and 48 of them are OK, so the probability that the second card doesn't pair the first card is 48/51. Suppose your second card was a king. For the third card, you now have to avoid all remaining aces and kings. There are 50 cards left in the deck and you have to Dodge six of them. So the probability that the third card doesn't pair either of the first two cards is 44/50. Each time you pick a card, there are three more cards you have to avoid, and one fewer card in the deck. So for the 4th card, you have to avoid 9 cards out of 49, giving a probability of 40/49. This continues until the 13th card, when the probability is 4/40. All these things have to happen one after the other, so you have to multiply the probabilities together:

48/51 x 44/50 x 40/49 x 36/48 x 32/47 x 28/46 x 24/45 x 20/44 x 16/43 x 12/42 x 8/41 x 4/40.

This gives the same probability as above (about 1 in 9462).

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Q: What is the probability that a hand of 13 cards contains no pairs?
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What is the probability that a random selected poker hand contains exactly 3 aces given that it contains at least 2 aces?

I will assume that you mean a five card poker hand. We can label the cards C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5. We are basically told already that C1 and C2 are both aces. So we have to find the probability that exactly one of C3, C4, and C5 is an ace. Knowing that the first two cards in our hand are both aces means that there are only 50 cards left in the deck. The probability that C3 is an ace and that C4 and C5 are both not aces is (2/50)(48/49)(47/48)=0.03836734694. The same probability also applies to each of C4 and C5, considered independently of each other. Therefore, our final probability is 3* 0.03836734694=0.1151020408


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The answer will depend on the exact situation.If you are dealt a single card, the probability of that single card not being a queen is 12/13 - assuming you have no knowledge about the other cards.Here is another example. If you already hold three queens in your hand (and no other cards have been dealt), the probability of the next card being dealt being a queen is 1/49, so the probability of NOT getting a queen is 48/49 - higher than in the previous example.


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The probability of 4 aces being in a hand of 9 cards is: 9C4 ∙ (4/52)∙(3/51)∙(2/50)∙(1/49)∙(48/48)∙(47/47)∙∙∙(44/44) = 0.0004654... ≈ 0.0465% where 9C4 = 9!/[(9-3)!∙3!] = 126


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A deck of ordinary cards is shuffled and 13 cards are dealt. What is the probability that the last card dealt is an ace?

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I will assume that you mean a five card poker hand. We can label the cards C1, C2, C3, C4, and C5. We are basically told already that C1 and C2 are both aces. So we have to find the probability that exactly one of C3, C4, and C5 is an ace. Knowing that the first two cards in our hand are both aces means that there are only 50 cards left in the deck. The probability that C3 is an ace and that C4 and C5 are both not aces is (2/50)(48/49)(47/48)=0.03836734694. The same probability also applies to each of C4 and C5, considered independently of each other. Therefore, our final probability is 3* 0.03836734694=0.1151020408


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