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Mechanical advantage is a measure of leverage, essentially and = distance moved at input end / distance moved at output end, but the work done ( force* distance ) at each end is the same except there will be the inevitable friction losses inbetween,

The efficiency of a machine is work done at output / work done at input and can never exceed 100 %

Q: Can the actual MA of a machine ever be greater than its IMA?

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The IMA of a machine is greater than 1 whenever the output force is greater than the input force.

no 0 is NEVER greater than 8! EVER

42.53 is greater than 42.35 because you look at the number to the right of the decimal, and which ever is greater, is the answer

It tells me that the machine is imaginary and does not exist.

No, due to the fact machines loose energy due to heat/thermal energy. you will always loose some amount of energy.

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The IMA of a machine is greater than 1 whenever the output force is greater than the input force.

The actual yield is less than the theoretical yield.

It sure can. A machine as simple as a lever can produce an output force that is greater than the input force. Perhaps you are confusing "force" with "energy"?

no 0 is NEVER greater than 8! EVER

199 over 198 estimate = 1 actual answer would be greater than 1 35 over 17 estimate = 1 actual answer would be greater than 1

42.53 is greater than 42.35 because you look at the number to the right of the decimal, and which ever is greater, is the answer

my dear gravity is forever greater than friction and strong atomic force is greater than gravity

It tells me that the machine is imaginary and does not exist.

No. And you cannot make it greater THAN the input, either.

Output force CAN'T be absolutely greater than input force because energy is lost due to friction. However, the "mechanical advantage" of a simple machine can be greater than one because the machine applies the force over a different distance.

inventory will decline.

No, it's never greater than the smallest number.