Mechanical advantage is a measure of leverage, essentially and = distance moved at input end / distance moved at output end, but the work done ( force* distance ) at each end is the same except there will be the inevitable friction losses inbetween,
The efficiency of a machine is work done at output / work done at input and can never exceed 100 %
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The IMA of a machine is greater than 1 whenever the output force is greater than the input force.
42.53 is greater than 42.35 because you look at the number to the right of the decimal, and which ever is greater, is the answer
It tells me that the machine is imaginary and does not exist.
No, due to the fact machines loose energy due to heat/thermal energy. you will always loose some amount of energy.
i don't think it ever is