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It tells me that the machine is imaginary and does not exist.

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The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?

well the advantage of that is pie, not math pie but pie that you eat


What is the ma of a machine that has an f out equal to its f in?

The mechanical advantage (MA) of a machine that has an output force equal to its input force is 1. This means that the machine does not provide any mechanical advantage, as the output force is equal to the input force.


What does a simple machine give a mechanical advantage of?

It reduces weight of other things known as the load. Also can increase energy output, IE; a push bike with gears.


Is a ideal machine has an efficiency of less than one equal to one greater than one?

ideal machines have mechanical efficeincy equal to 1 (100% efficient) since efficiency is the ratio of the power output to the power input


If the output force is greater than the input force of a simple machine Is the mechanical advantage is less than one?

No, the mechanical advantage is greater than 1. If you input a force of 1 unit you get out a force of 1+ units. However keep in mind that if this were a PERFECT machine the amount of WORK INPUT is EQUAL to the the amount of WORK OUTPUT. Since perfection is not possible, and there are frictional losses this is not possible. Otherwise you could have a perpetual motion machine, which is not yet possible.


What simple machine has an IMA less than 1?

A simple machine with an IMA (ideal mechanical advantage) less than 1 is a machine where the output force is greater than the input force. A common example is a pulley system where the IMA is equal to the number of supporting ropes.


What does the output force divided by the input force equal?

Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage


If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).


Number of times that a machine increases the input force; equal to the output force divided by the input force?

Yes. The result of that calculation is the machine's mechanical advantage.


How do you get the mechanical advantage of a screw?

The mechanical advantage of a screw can be found by dividing the circumference of the screw by the pitch of the screw. In this case, the total mechanical advantage is equal to the circumference of the simple machine to which the effort force is applied divided by the pitch of the screw.


If a simple machine could be frictionless how would IMA and AMA compare?

If a simple machine was frictionless, the Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) would be equal to the Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA). This is because in the absence of friction, all the input work would be completely transferred to the output work without any energy losses due to friction. Therefore, IMA would be equal to AMA, resulting in a more efficient and effective machine.


What is a Mechanical advantage equal to?

Mechanical advantage the resistance force. Mechanical advantage is equal output force divided by input force.