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Only when their GCF is 2.

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Q: Can you get the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then dividing the answer by 2?
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Related questions

Can you always find the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then divided them by 2?


What is the inverse operation of multiplying by 2?

The inverse of multiplying is dividing, so dividing by 2.

Multiplying by 2 has the same result as dividing a number by 52 and then multiplying by 12?

It won't work for all numbers. I tried with 1 and got a 0.230769...

How do you simplify -2-3-4 if you are not dividing or multiplying?

you add all numbers and you keep the sign of the bigger number -9

Why is multiplying mixed numbers less than dividing mixed numbers with fractions?

It depends on the numbers. For example, dividing by 1 1/2 (one and a half) is exactly the same as dividing by 3/2, since both represent the same number.In general, if you divide by a larger number, the result will be less.

How is multiplying by 10 and dividing by 2 the same as multiplying by 5?

because there the same

Is taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing by ½?

No, taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing it by 2. Dividing a number by ½ is the same as multiplying it by 2.

Can you always determine the LCM of any 2 numbers and why simple?

For any two positive integers x and y, an LCM exists. If it exists, we can identify it.

What is dividing by 0.5 the same as in multiplying?


How Sarah says that you can find the LCM of any two whole numbers by multiplying them together provide a counter example to show that Sarah statement is incorrect?

The LCM of 2 and 4 is not 8.

How do you work out the LCM of 7 and 12?

It is 84 by multiplying both numbers because 7 is a prime and the prime factors of 12 are 2*2*3

Is multiplying a number by 2 is the same as halving that number?

no, dividing a number is halving it, multiplying iy by 2 is doubling it