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Can you get the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then dividing the answer by 2?
Wiki User
∙ 5y ago
Only when their GCF is 2.
Wiki User
∙ 5y ago
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Can you always find the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then divided them by 2?
4
What is the inverse operation of multiplying by 2?
The inverse of multiplying is dividing, so dividing by 2.
Multiplying by 2 has the same result as dividing a number by 52 and then multiplying by 12?
It won't work for all numbers. I tried with 1 and got a 0.230769...
How do you simplify -2-3-4 if you are not dividing or multiplying?
you add all numbers and you keep the sign of the bigger number -9
Why is multiplying mixed numbers less than dividing mixed numbers with fractions?
It depends on the numbers. For example, dividing by 1 1/2 (one and a half) is exactly the same as dividing by 3/2, since both represent the same number.In general, if you divide by a larger number, the result will be less.
How is multiplying by 10 and dividing by 2 the same as multiplying by 5?
because there the same
Is taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing by ½?
No, taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing it by 2. Dividing a number by ½ is the same as multiplying it by 2.
Can you always determine the LCM of any 2 numbers and why simple?
For any two positive integers x and y, an LCM exists. If it exists, we can identify it.
What is dividing by 0.5 the same as in multiplying?
1/2
How Sarah says that you can find the LCM of any two whole numbers by multiplying them together provide a counter example to show that Sarah statement is incorrect?
The LCM of 2 and 4 is not 8.
How do you work out the LCM of 7 and 12?
It is 84 by multiplying both numbers because 7 is a prime and the prime factors of 12 are 2*2*3
Is multiplying a number by 2 is the same as halving that number?
no, dividing a number is halving it, multiplying iy by 2 is doubling it
