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Only when their GCF is 2.

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Q: Can you get the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then dividing the answer by 2?
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Related questions

Can you always find the LCM of 2 numbers by multiplying them and then divided them by 2?

4


What is the inverse operation of multiplying by 2?

The inverse of multiplying is dividing, so dividing by 2.


Multiplying by 2 has the same result as dividing a number by 52 and then multiplying by 12?

It won't work for all numbers. I tried with 1 and got a 0.230769...


How do you simplify -2-3-4 if you are not dividing or multiplying?

you add all numbers and you keep the sign of the bigger number -9


Why is multiplying mixed numbers less than dividing mixed numbers with fractions?

It depends on the numbers. For example, dividing by 1 1/2 (one and a half) is exactly the same as dividing by 3/2, since both represent the same number.In general, if you divide by a larger number, the result will be less.


How is multiplying by 10 and dividing by 2 the same as multiplying by 5?

because there the same


Is taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing by ½?

No, taking ½ of a number is the same as dividing it by 2. Dividing a number by ½ is the same as multiplying it by 2.


Can you always determine the LCM of any 2 numbers and why simple?

For any two positive integers x and y, an LCM exists. If it exists, we can identify it.


What is dividing by 0.5 the same as in multiplying?

1/2


How Sarah says that you can find the LCM of any two whole numbers by multiplying them together provide a counter example to show that Sarah statement is incorrect?

The LCM of 2 and 4 is not 8.


How do you work out the LCM of 7 and 12?

It is 84 by multiplying both numbers because 7 is a prime and the prime factors of 12 are 2*2*3


Is multiplying a number by 2 is the same as halving that number?

no, dividing a number is halving it, multiplying iy by 2 is doubling it