Yes.
The multiplicative identity for the rational numbers is 1 (also can be written as 1/1).
Yes, it is 1.
Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.
-3 does not have a multiplicative identity in the set of real numbers.
Dividing any number by 1 equals the number you started with.
Yes, it does.
Yes, it is 1.
The multiplicative identity is a property of a set of numbers, not of an individual number in the set. 1 is the multiplicative identity for the set of all integers, rationals or reals etc. Individual elements of the set do have a multiplicative INVERSE and for 2, this is 1/2 or 0.5
Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.
-3 does not have a multiplicative identity in the set of real numbers.
help me
Dividing any number by 1 equals the number you started with.
Yes, it does.
In a set S, the multiplicative inverse of a non-zero element x is an element of the set, y, such that x*y = y*x = i, the identity element of S. For the set of numbers, the multiplicative identity is 1 and the multiplicative identity is also denoted by 1/x or x^-1.
There is only one set and it does have an additive identity.
Yes. The additive identity is 0.
1 is the identity for multiplication. 1*x = x = x*1 for all rational x.
All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.