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Express the limit as a definite integral on the given interval. lim as n approaches infinity n sigma i 1 of e xi 1 xi x Deltax as you know Delta x b-an and xi a- i x Delta x P?
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Why do not you closed the interval mat with infinity?
Because infinity is not a number.
How do you find the area of a normal distribution?
The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.
What is the difference between mean value theorem of integration and Mean Value Theorem of differentiation?
The mean value theorem for differentiation guarantees the existing of a number c in an interval (a,b) where a function f is continuous such that the derivative at c (the instantiuous rate of change at c) equals the average rate of change over that interval. mean value theorem of integration guarantees the existing of a number c in an interval (a,b)where a function f is continuous such that the (value of the function at c) multiplied by the length of the interval (b-a) equals the value of a the definite integral from a to b. In other words, it guarantees the existing of a rectangle (whose base is the length of the interval b-a that has exactly the same area of the region under the graph of the function f (betweeen a and b).
What are allowable probabilities?
A probability must be a real number in the interval [0, 1]. The sum (or integral) of the probabilities over all possible values must be 1.
Instantaneous speed is total distance traveled divided by total time of travel this is true and false?
False. Instantaneous speed is distance travelled divided by time, for a very short time interval. (Technically, you take the limit, when the time interval approaches zero.)
What mathematical term starts with the letter 'I'?
· Infinite · Infinity · Integral · Interior Angle · Interest · Interval · Inverse
What is the relation between definite integrals and areas?
Consider the integral of sin x over the interval from 0 to 2pi. In this interval the value of sin x rises from 0 to 1 then falls through 0 to -1 and then rises again to 0. In other words the part of the sin x function between 0 and pi is 'above' the axis and the part between pi and 2pi is 'below' the axis. The value of this integral is zero because although the areas enclosed by the parts of the function between 0 and pi and pi and 2pi are the same the integral of the latter part is negative. The point I am trying to make is that a definite integral gives the area between a function and the horizontal axis but areas below the axis are negative. The integral of sin x over the interval from 0 to pi is 2. The integral of six x over the interval from pi to 2pi is -2.
Prove that if the definite integral is continuous on the interval ab then it is integrable over the interval ab sorry that I couldn't type the brackets over ab because it doesn't allow?
why doesn't wiki allow punctuation??? Now prove that if the definite integral of f(x) dx is continuous on the interval [a,b] then it is integrable over [a,b]. Another answer: I suspect that the question should be: Prove that if f(x) is continuous on the interval [a,b] then the definite integral of f(x) dx over the interval [a,b] exists. The proof can be found in reasonable calculus texts. On the way you need to know that a function f(x) that is continuous on a closed interval [a,b] is uniformlycontinuous on that interval. Then you take partitions P of the interval [a,b] and look at the upper sum U[P] and lower sum L[P] of f with respect to the partition. Because the function is uniformly continuous on [a,b], you can find partitions P such that U[P] and L[P] are arbitrarily close together, and that in turn tells you that the (Riemann) integral of f over [a,b] exists. This is a somewhat advanced topic.
Why do not you closed the interval mat with infinity?
Because infinity is not a number.
What is the relationship of integral and differential calculus?
We say function F is an anti derivative, or indefinite integral of f if F' = f. Also, if f has an anti-derivative and is integrable on interval [a, b], then the definite integral of f from a to b is equal to F(b) - F(a) Thirdly, Let F(x) be the definite integral of integrable function f from a to x for all x in [a, b] of f, then F is an anti-derivative of f on [a,b] The definition of indefinite integral as anti-derivative, and the relation of definite integral with anti-derivative, we can conclude that integration and differentiation can be considered as two opposite operations.
How do you write in interval notation x is positive?
Positive: (0, infinity)Nonnegative: [0, infinity)Negative: (-infinity, 0)Nonpositive (-infinity, 0]
Which interval notation represents all real number greater than -3?
The interval (-3, infinity).
The interval notation for the interval of real numbers?
There is more than one notation, but the open interval between a and b is often written (a,b) and the closed interval is written [a,b] where a and b are real numbers. Intervals may be half open or half closed as well such as [a,b) or (a,b]. For all real numbers, it is (-infinity,+infinity), bit use the infinity symbol instead (an 8 on its side).
X plus X equals X What does X equal if it is not 0 or infinity?
X = (-infinity, 0) U (0, infinity) The above is read as X equals negative infinity, comma zero, union, zero, comma infinity on an open interval (By the way, this interval is made up of two intervals). A parenthesis by a value indicates it is not included. This means X could equal anything between -infinity and 0 and X can equal anything between 0 and infinity. X can not equal -infinity. X can not equal 0. X can not equal infinity. The interval is open because none of the starting or ending values can be a value of X (It's a parenthesis by all the starting and ending values). There is a parenthesis by 0 because 0 is not a possible value of X (the question says so). There is a parenthesis by -infinity and infinity because they are not real numbers. So whether either of them is included in the answer, they always have a parenthesis by them. If a number was included in an interval, there would be a square bracket by it, like this: [ or ]. If the starting number and the ending number on the interval is included then the interval is closed.
How do you derive mean of Pareto distribution?
You must know calculus, at least that the integral of xN = 1/(N+1)xN+1 . Define the Pareto distribution as: f(x) = abax-(a+1) or Cx-(a+1) where C = aba (a constant) Remember that the pdf is defined over the domain [b, inf] otherwise zero. Mean = integral xf(x) evaluated from b to infinity. Remember also that the limit of 1/x as x goes to infinity = 0. Similarly for any positive a, (1/x)a goes to 0 as x goes to infinity. mean = integral C x-(a+1)x dx = integral Cx-a = C(1/(-a+1))x-a+1 evaluated over the interval b to infinity. The integral is zero at infinity, so the mean = C(0-1/(-a+1))b-a+1 Remember b-a+1 = b-ab After substituting and cancelling mean = ab/(a-1) for a greater than 1.
How do you find the area of a normal distribution?
The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.
How do you write in interval notation 0 less than x less than positive infinity?
(0, infinity) Note that you should use the infinity sign instead of the word (the sideways 8).
