402 is not the first multiple of 3. The first multiple of any number is itself. 402 is 134 times 3.
It is 402.
134*3=402
402. It is the first number after 400 for which the digital root (the sum of its digits) is divisible by 3. The digital root being divisible by 3 is a test for divisibility by 3.
They know this because 3 is a factor of 402, therefore 3 multiplied by a number(134 to be precise) will give the quotinent 402 so 402 is therefore in the 3 times table.
2 x 3 x 67 = 402 2 x 201 = 402 3 x 134 = 402 6 x 67 = 402 To solve such a problem you use prime decomposition: This allows you to break any integer down into a multiple of prime numbers as in 2x3x67=402. Two, Three and 67 are all prime. From there to find all possible options, multiply the primes together: 2x3x67=402 --> 3x67=201 --> 2x201=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x67=134 --> 3x134=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x3=6 --> 6x67=402 This is under the assumption that this problem is restricted to integers. If real numbers are used, there are infinitely many solutions:
Yes, 402/3 = 134.
ur a dummy cuz i know
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, and 402.The prime factors of 402 are: 2, 3, and 67.
1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402.
134 x 3= 402.... If you divide the number by 3 and if you have no remainder it is a multiple of 3...
Yes 3 goes into 402.... 136