402 is not the first multiple of 3. The first multiple of any number is itself. 402 is 134 times 3.
It is 402.
134*3=402
402. It is the first number after 400 for which the digital root (the sum of its digits) is divisible by 3. The digital root being divisible by 3 is a test for divisibility by 3.
They know this because 3 is a factor of 402, therefore 3 multiplied by a number(134 to be precise) will give the quotinent 402 so 402 is therefore in the 3 times table.
2 x 3 x 67 = 402 2 x 201 = 402 3 x 134 = 402 6 x 67 = 402 To solve such a problem you use prime decomposition: This allows you to break any integer down into a multiple of prime numbers as in 2x3x67=402. Two, Three and 67 are all prime. From there to find all possible options, multiply the primes together: 2x3x67=402 --> 3x67=201 --> 2x201=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x67=134 --> 3x134=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x3=6 --> 6x67=402 This is under the assumption that this problem is restricted to integers. If real numbers are used, there are infinitely many solutions:
Yes, 402/3 = 134.
ur a dummy cuz i know
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, and 402.The prime factors of 402 are: 2, 3, and 67.
1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402.
134 x 3= 402.... If you divide the number by 3 and if you have no remainder it is a multiple of 3...
Sure thing, honey. The numbers between 400 and 500 that are divisible by 3 are 402, 405, 408, 411, 414, 417, 420, 423, 426, 429, 432, 435, 438, 441, 444, 447, 450, 453, 456, 459, 462, 465, 468, 471, 474, 477, 480, 483, 486, 489, 492, 495, and 498. Hope that helps, sugar!