d/dx(in x)
= 1/x
The proof is very confusing, so I just commit this to memory.
1/xlnx Use the chain rule: ln(ln(x)) The derivative of the outside is1/ln(x) times the derivative of the inside. 1/[x*ln(x)]
e^[ln(x^2)]=x^2, so your question is really, "What is the derivative of x^2," to which the answer is 2x.
For the function: y = sin(x)cos(x) To find the derivative y', implicit differentiation must be used. To do this, both sides of the equation must be put into the argument of a natural logarithm: ln(y) = ln(sin(x)cos(x)) by the properties of logarithms, this can also be expressed as: ln(y) = cos(x)ln(sin(x)) deriving both sides of the equation yields: (1/y)(y') = cos(x)(1/sin(x))(cos(x)) + -sin(x)ln(sin(x)) This derivative features two important things. The obvious thing is the product rule use to differentiate the right side of the equation. The left side of the equation brings into play the "implicit" differentiation part of this problem. The derivative of ln(y) is a chain rule. The derivative of just ln(y) is simply 1/y, but you must also multiply by the derivative of y, which is y'. so the total derivative of ln(y) is (1/y)(y'). solving for y' in the above, the following is found: y' = y[(cos2(x)/sin(x)) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] = y[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] y' = y[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] = sin(x)cos(x)[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x)) is the most succinct form of this derivative.
The anti-derivative of 1/x is ln|x| + C, where ln refers to logarithm of x to the base e and |x| refers to the absolute value of x, and C is a constant.
d/dx of lnx is 1/x Therefore the derivative is 1/(1+x)
1/xlnx Use the chain rule: ln(ln(x)) The derivative of the outside is1/ln(x) times the derivative of the inside. 1/[x*ln(x)]
The derivative of e^u(x) with respect to x: [du/dx]*[e^u(x)]For a general exponential: b^x, can be rewritten as b^x = e^(x*ln(b))So derivative of b^x = derivative of e^u(x), where u(x) = x*ln(b).Derivative of x*ln(b) = ln(b). {remember b is just a constant, so ln(b) is a constant}So derivative of b^x = ln(b)*e^(x*ln(b))= ln(b) * b^x(from above)
The derivative of e^u(x) with respect to x: [du/dx]*[e^u(x)]For a general exponential: b^x, can be rewritten as b^x = e^(x*ln(b))So derivative of b^x = derivative of e^u(x), where u(x) = x*ln(b).Derivative of x*ln(b) = ln(b). {remember b is just a constant, so ln(b) is a constant}So derivative of b^x = ln(b)*e^(x*ln(b))= ln(b) * b^x(from above)
the derivative of ln x = x'/x; the derivative of 1 is 0 so the answer is 500(1/x)+0 = 500/x
y = e^ln x using the fact that e to the ln x is just x, and the derivative of x is 1: y = x y' = 1
If the function is (ln x)2, then the chain rules gives us the derivative 2ln(x)/x, with the x in the denominator. If the function is ln (x2), then the chain rule gives us the derivative 2/x.
The derivative of ln x is 1/x The derivative of 2ln x is 2(1/x) = 2/x
e^[ln(x^2)]=x^2, so your question is really, "What is the derivative of x^2," to which the answer is 2x.
if f(x)=kx, f'(x)=ln(k)*kx. Therefore, the derivative of 2x is ln(2)*2x.
For the function: y = sin(x)cos(x) To find the derivative y', implicit differentiation must be used. To do this, both sides of the equation must be put into the argument of a natural logarithm: ln(y) = ln(sin(x)cos(x)) by the properties of logarithms, this can also be expressed as: ln(y) = cos(x)ln(sin(x)) deriving both sides of the equation yields: (1/y)(y') = cos(x)(1/sin(x))(cos(x)) + -sin(x)ln(sin(x)) This derivative features two important things. The obvious thing is the product rule use to differentiate the right side of the equation. The left side of the equation brings into play the "implicit" differentiation part of this problem. The derivative of ln(y) is a chain rule. The derivative of just ln(y) is simply 1/y, but you must also multiply by the derivative of y, which is y'. so the total derivative of ln(y) is (1/y)(y'). solving for y' in the above, the following is found: y' = y[(cos2(x)/sin(x)) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] = y[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] y' = y[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x))] = sin(x)cos(x)[cot(x)cos(x) - sin(x)ln(sin(x)) is the most succinct form of this derivative.
Yes, the function ln(x) where ln is the logarithm to base e.Yes, the function ln(x) where ln is the logarithm to base e.Yes, the function ln(x) where ln is the logarithm to base e.Yes, the function ln(x) where ln is the logarithm to base e.
The derivative of ln x is 1/x. Replacing the expression, that gives you 1 / (1-x). By the chain rule, this must then be multiplied by the derivative of (1-x), which is -1. So, the final result is -1 / (1-x).