Because the question is tautological. You are asking how something is the same as that very samne thing!
They are the same.
Whereas the procedure for a linear equality is the same, the inequality defines all of the plane on one side (or the other) of the corresponding line.
They are alike in that you graph the lines in the same way, but they are different because you have to shade in one side of the line
They are not. An inequality cannot, by definition, be the same as an equation.
Yes.
Yes.
Basically. If the inequality's sign is < or ≤, then you shade the part under the line. If the inequality's sign is > or ≥, then you shade the part over the line.
Yes, they refer to the same thing.
Is the civil rights movement causing racism? They are the same concept, how can something that is fighting for equality be causing inequality? The answer is, they can't.
Not quite sure of the direction of the argument required.Any inequality can be made into an equality by using an auxiliary variable. For example,x + 2y < 3 is equivalent to x + 2y - a = 3 where a is some positive variable. [This method is used in linear programming.]Conversely, any equality can be written as a combination of two inequalities. For example,x + 2y = 3 is the same asx + 2y ≤ 3 and x + 2y ≥ 3
The multiplication property of equality states that if you multiply both sides of an equation by the same non-zero number, the two sides remain equal. In contrast, the multiplication property of inequality states that if you multiply both sides of an inequality by a positive number, the inequality remains unchanged, but if you multiply by a negative number, the inequality sign must be flipped. Thus, while equality preserves its form, inequality requires careful handling based on the sign of the multiplier.
They intercept at:no pointsone point onlytwo points.