No, it is not.
How can you tell if an equal share is more than one whole?Use an example from above to explain your answers.
Read the words carefully. 'A' is the smallest whole number that's either equal to 'x' or else more than 'x'. If 'x' is a whole number, then 'A' is the same as 'x', because that's the smallest whole number that's equal to 'x'. If 'x' is 2.3, then there's no whole number equal to 'x', and the smallest one that's more than 'x' is 3 .
No. For any given fraction, you can find whole numbers that are more than, and whole numbers that are less than, the fraction. For example, if your fraction is 5/2 (equal to 2 1/2), 2 is less, and 3 is more, than this fraction.
The quotient for whole numbers will always be less than or equal to the dividend. It will never be more.
Every whole number is 1 or more. 0.6666667 is less than 1. So 0.6666667 can't be equal to any whole number.
if the value above the line of the fraction is greater than or equal to the value below the lin, then the fraction is equal to or greater than 1 whole.
i do know (NOT!) LOL!
The result is less than the whole number and greater than or equal to the decimal. Unless the whole number is negative in which case the result is greater than the whole number and less than or equal to the decimal.
greater than
It is a saying to describe synergy. Mathematically, though, the whole is equal to the sum of the parts - not more nor less.
Asia has more than half of the world's population, making it the continent with more than the average share of population.
When they have a factor in common greater than one.