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Q: Is the total area under a normal distribution curve to the right of the mean is always equal to 0?

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By standard practice, the normal distribution curve should be normalized so that the area under the curve is 1. This results in a height, at the mean, of about 0.4, i.e. the probability of a sample value being equal to the mean is 40 percent. The width of the normal distribution curve is infinite, as the tails are asymptotic to the X axis. It is easier to understand that the +/- one sigma area is 68.2 percent, the +/- two sigma area is 95.4 percent, and the +/- three sigma area is 99.6 percent.

Yes, mode equals median in a normal distribution.

The standard normal distribution is a subset of a normal distribution. It has the properties of mean equal to zero and a standard deviation equal to one. There is only one standard normal distribution and no others so it could be considered the "perfect" one.

Yes.

Yes.

Related questions

The z score for the mean is always 0.

Yes, it is true; and the 2 quantities that describe a normal distribution are mean and standard deviation.

Yes. By definition. A normal distribution has a bell-shaped density curve described by its mean and standard deviation. The density curve is symmetrical(i.e., an exact reflection of form on opposite sides of a dividing line), and centered about (divided by) its mean, with its spread (width) determined by its standard deviation. Additionally, the mean, median, and mode of the distribution are equal and located at the peak (i.e., height of the curve).

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

No.The Lorenz curve measures inequality of distribution of income (or wealth). The diagonal represents a distribution that is perfectly equal and you cannot get more equal than that!

By standard practice, the normal distribution curve should be normalized so that the area under the curve is 1. This results in a height, at the mean, of about 0.4, i.e. the probability of a sample value being equal to the mean is 40 percent. The width of the normal distribution curve is infinite, as the tails are asymptotic to the X axis. It is easier to understand that the +/- one sigma area is 68.2 percent, the +/- two sigma area is 95.4 percent, and the +/- three sigma area is 99.6 percent.

1.it is bell shaped.2.m.d=0.7979 of s.d 3.total area under the normal curve is equal to 1.

The area under the normal distribution curve represents the probability of an event occurring that is normally distributed. So, the area under the entire normal distribution curve must be 1 (equal to 100%). For example, if the mean (average) male height is 5'10" then there is a 50% chance that a randomly selected male will have a height that is below or exactly 5'10". This is because the area under the normal curve from the left hand side up to the mean consists of half of the entire area of the normal curve. This leads us to the definitions of z-scores and standard deviations to represent how far along the normal curve a particular value is. We can calculate the likelihood of the value by finding the area under the normal curve to that point, usually by using a z-score cdf (cumulative density function) utility of a calculator or statistics software.

Yes, mode equals median in a normal distribution.

The standard normal distribution is a subset of a normal distribution. It has the properties of mean equal to zero and a standard deviation equal to one. There is only one standard normal distribution and no others so it could be considered the "perfect" one.

The expected value of the standard normal distribution is equal to the total amount of the value. It is usually equal to it when the value works out to be the same.

Yes.