Best Answer

The area under the normal distribution curve represents the probability of an event occurring that is normally distributed. So, the area under the entire normal distribution curve must be 1 (equal to 100%).

For example, if the mean (average) male height is 5'10" then there is a 50% chance that a randomly selected male will have a height that is below or exactly 5'10". This is because the area under the normal curve from the left hand side up to the mean consists of half of the entire area of the normal curve.

This leads us to the definitions of z-scores and standard deviations to represent how far along the normal curve a particular value is. We can calculate the likelihood of the value by finding the area under the normal curve to that point, usually by using a z-score cdf (cumulative density function) utility of a calculator or statistics software.

Study guides

☆☆

Q: What is the total area under the normal distribution curve?

Write your answer...

Submit

Still have questions?

Continue Learning about Statistics

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%

Yes. The total area under any probability distribution curve is always the probability of all possible outcomes - which is 1.

~0.0606

Approx 0.0606

Related questions

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

100%

yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%

False. A normalized distribution curve (do not confuse normalized with normal), by definition, has an area under the curve of exactly 1. That is because the probability of all possible events is also always exactly 1. The shape of the curve does not matter.

Yes. The total area under any probability distribution curve is always the probability of all possible outcomes - which is 1.

~0.0606

Approx 0.0606

0.1972

0.0006 (approx).

1.it is bell shaped.2.m.d=0.7979 of s.d 3.total area under the normal curve is equal to 1.

A normalized probability distribution curve has an area under the curve of 1.Note: I said "normalized", not "normal". Do not confuse the terms.

It is any shape that you want, provided that the total area under the curve is 1.

People also asked