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The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values.

The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

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โˆ™ 2016-08-23 16:18:17
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Q: The total area under a normal distribution is infinite?
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Related questions

Is total area under a normal distribution finite?

Yes, and is equal to 1. This is true for normal distribution using any mean and variance.


If the tails of the normal distribution curve are infinitely long. Is it True or False that the total area under the curve is also infinite?

False. A normalized distribution curve (do not confuse normalized with normal), by definition, has an area under the curve of exactly 1. That is because the probability of all possible events is also always exactly 1. The shape of the curve does not matter.


Is the total area under a normal distribution curve to the right of the mean is always equal to 0?

100%


The distribution of sample means is not always a normal distribution Under what circumstances will the distribution of sample means not be normal?

The distribution of sample means will not be normal if the number of samples does not reach 30.


Is The total area under the curve of any normal distribution is 1.0?

yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%


What is the area under the standard normal distribution called?

One.


Is in the normal distribution the total area beneath the curve represent the probability for all possible outcomes for a given event?

Yes. The total area under any probability distribution curve is always the probability of all possible outcomes - which is 1.


Give three properties of a normal distribution function?

1.it is bell shaped.2.m.d=0.7979 of s.d 3.total area under the normal curve is equal to 1.


How do you find the area of a normal distribution?

The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.


What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?

~0.0606


What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z0.75 and z1.89?

0.1972


What is the area under normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?

Approx 0.0606

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If the tails of the normal distribution curve are infinitely long. Is it True or False that the total area under the curve is also infinite?

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