Yes, it should be non-zero; if you multiply both sides by zero you wipe out the equation.
The multiplicative inverse property is a property such that: a(1/a) = 1 where a is nonzero value. If a is a nonzero value, then the multiplicative inverse of a is 1/a.
There are an infinite number of them and there are not enough electrons in the whole universe to list them all.
Multiplication
Multiplication by zero is one such operation.
Those are the rules of multiplication (and division).
For numbers with ordinary multiplication defined on them, they are the same.
It is true, and it follows from the definition of multiplication and division.
Set of instruction are known as function.
The distributive property is not related to finding equivalent fractions. The distributive property is a rule that states a(b + c) is equal to ab + ac. It is used to simplify expressions and perform operations like multiplication or addition. To find an equivalent fraction, you would need to multiply or divide the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero number.
Of not being equal to zero. Also, of being closed under division.
yes because when a negative and a posative number are in a multiplication or division, the answer will be negative. Example= -5 divided by 5= -1
The product of two nonzero whole numbers will be a nonzero whole number.