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The values depends on what x is. This function sqrt(2)*cos(x - pi/4) [with x in radians], is equivalent to cos(x) + sin(x).

or sqrt(2)*cos(x - 90°) [with x in degrees]

Q: What does cosx plus sinx equal?

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(1-cosx)/sinx + sinx/(1- cosx) = [(1 - cosx)*(1 - cosx) + sinx*sinx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [1 - 2cosx + cos2x + sin2x]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2 - 2cosx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2*(1-cosx)]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = 2/sinx = 2cosecx

f(x)=sinx+cosx take the derivative f'(x)=cosx-sinx critical number when x=pi/4

From the Pythagorean identity, sin2x = 1-cos2x. LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cosx/sinx LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - (cosx/sinx)(cosx/cosx) LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cos2x/(sinx cosx) LHS = (1- cos2x)/(sinx cosx) LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) [from Pythagorean identity] LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) LHS = sinx/cosx LHS = tanx [by definition] RHS = tanx LHS = RHS and so the identity is proven. Q.E.D.

secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)

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(1-cosx)/sinx + sinx/(1- cosx) = [(1 - cosx)*(1 - cosx) + sinx*sinx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [1 - 2cosx + cos2x + sin2x]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2 - 2cosx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2*(1-cosx)]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = 2/sinx = 2cosecx

to simplify Cosx=Sinx Tanx you should remember your fundamental and pythagorean identities.. Cosx + Sinx Tanx Cosx + Sinx (Sinx/Cosx) <---------- From Tanx= Sinx/Cosx Cosx + Sin2x/ Cos x <------------- do the LCD Cosx (Cosx/Cosx) + Sin2x/Cosx (Cos2x+Sin2x)/Cosx 1/Cosx <--------- From Sin2x + Cos2x =1 or Secx <-------- answer Comment if you have questions...:))

f(x)=sinx+cosx take the derivative f'(x)=cosx-sinx critical number when x=pi/4

From the Pythagorean identity, sin2x = 1-cos2x. LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cosx/sinx LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - (cosx/sinx)(cosx/cosx) LHS = 1/(sinx cosx) - cos2x/(sinx cosx) LHS = (1- cos2x)/(sinx cosx) LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) [from Pythagorean identity] LHS = sin2x /(sinx cosx) LHS = sinx/cosx LHS = tanx [by definition] RHS = tanx LHS = RHS and so the identity is proven. Q.E.D.

secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)

d/dx(sinx-cosx)=cosx--sinx=cosx+sinx

it is not possible to get the Integral of cos2x log cosx-sinx coax plus since there are no symbols given in the equation.

No; sin2x = 2 cosx sinx

(1 + tanx)/sinxMultiply by sinx/sinxsinx + tanxsinxDivide by sin2x (1/sin2x) = cscxcscx + tan(x)csc(x)tanx = sinx/cosx and cscx = 1/sinxcscx + (sinx/cosx)(1/sinx)sinx cancels outcscx + 1/cosx1/cosx = secxcscx + secx

There is no sensible or useful simplification.

x = 3pi/4