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What does pasuk mean?

Updated: 10/24/2022
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A pasuk is a verse. Pesukim is Hebrew for "verses"; usually sentences in The Bible. One verse = pasuk Many verses = pesukim

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Q: What does pasuk mean?
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Related questions

What is the pasuk for the Hebrew name Faiga?

The name Faiga is Yiddish, not Hebrew. There are no Hebrew names that begin with F.Answer:Your pasuk is Tehillim 118:19.


What if you started to make a bracha and it wasn't necessary?

There is a pasuk in Tehilim that start with 'baruch ata hashem', so if you start to make a bracha and it's not neccessary, just continue the pasuk: 'Baruch ata hashem lamdeiny chukecha' - 'ברוך אתה ה' למדני חוקיך'.


What is the pasuk for the Hebrew name Bracha?

בטח בה' ועשה טוב, שכון ארץ ורעה אמו×?×”(that's Tehillim 37:3).


What pasuk are the ten commandments in?

The ten commandments appear first in Shmot (Exodus) in chapter 20, verse 1 and continue through verse 14. They appear again in (Devarim) Deuteronomy chapter 5, verse 6 and continue 18.


Does the congregation stand for the final aliyah of a book of Torah?

Many people stand during every aliyah, whenever any Torah is read. Virtually all congregations stand for the reading of at least the final pasuk (verse) of a book of the Torah.


What does Hebrew colons means?

Colossians means the same thing in Hebrew that it means in English. The Hebrew word is pronounced Ha-kolosim.


What does layn mean in terms of Pasuk in Judaism?

"Layn" probably comes, by way of Yiddish, from the German word "lesen" meaning "to read". It is most commonly used to describe what the volunteer or professional reader does during the service when he reads publicly from the Torah. Although anyone entitled to lead the service is equally entitled to read from the Torah, Torah reading takes more training and more preparation than leading the service, and is usually handled by specialists.


What is the pasuk for the name reuben?

רְאֵה זֶה מָצָאתִי אָמְרָה קֹהֶלֶת אַחַת לְאַחַת לִמְצֹא חֶשְׁבּוֹן (Kohellet 7:27).


Does anyone have a davar Torah on parshat Masei?

Masei "Let them be wives to whomever is good in their eyes, but only to the family of their father's tribe shall they become wives" (36;6). The Gemara (Bava Basra, 120a) asks: The pasuk seems to contradict itself! The beginning of the pasuk says, "Let them be wives to whoever is good in their eyes, while later it says "only to the family of their father's tribe shall they become wives." Why did the pasuk say that they're allowed to marry anyone if they're only allowed to marry someone from their family's tribe? The Gemara (Bava Basra, 120a) answers: The second part of the pasuk ("only to the family of their father's tribe shall they become wives") is actually just advice to marry a man who was fitting for them--not a command. Therefore, there's no contradiction--they're allowed to marry anyone they want, and Hashem was just giving them advice to marry someone from their father's tribe. This answer, however, seems rather troublesome... The Gemara (Kiddushin, 31a) states "one who is commanded to fulfill an action and does it is greater than one who fulfills an action without having been commanded to do so." Therefore, if Hashem knew that the daughters of Zelophehad would fulfill his words even without a direct command, why did He not command--and thereby grant them additional reward? To answer this question, we must first understand why one receives more reward for fulfilling an action when he is commanded to do so--rather than when he is doing it on his own will. At first thought, one might think that one who fulfills an mitzva through their own will should receive greater reward since they show a strong desire. On the flip side, when a person is commanded to do something--he often completes the action simply because he was commanded to do it--but has no real desire to do it... However, the Torah says otherwise. The Yetzer Hara constantly tries to turn people away from performing mitzvot. Similarly, the Gemara (Sukkah 52b) states that the Yetzer Hara renews its assault against us every day. Therefore, one's reward for performing mitzvot is based on the level of difficulty. One who fulfills a mitzvah without being commanded doesn't have to struggle as much with the Yetzer Hara (since he is under no obligation from another person, he doesn't have to deal with the persuasions of the Yetzer Hara). However, why is reward based on level of difficulty and not desire? Why is difficulty a greater factor than desire? Perhaps one should receive more reward when they fulfill a mitzvah by doing something on their own will (surely Hashem must take one's desire into account)!?! I believe the answer is that when something is difficult to do but you still do it--that shows that you have the desire to do it. Therefore, when you're commanded to do something--not only is it difficult for you to do because of the Yetzer Hara--but by performing the mitzvah you show that you have a strong desire as well. On the other hand, when you're doing something through your own will--you have the element of desire but not difficulty. Thus, the Torah isn't saying that difficulty is a greater factor than desire...Rather, difficulty shows desire, and the 2 then combine to beat out the lone factor of desire. However, the daughters of Zelophehad weren't commanded by Hashem to marry someone from their own tribe--they were simply given advice to marry someone from their own tribe. Therefore, they still had to fight the Yetzer Hara urging them to ignore Hashem's advice. Thus, although they were simply advised to marry someone from the family of their father's tribe--it is as if they were commanded, in regards to the amount of reward they'd receive. But still, if they were receiving the same amount of reward as if they were commanded through following Hashem's advice, why not just command them? The first part of the pasuk was a command ("Let them be wives to whoever is good in their eyes"), so why change the second part? Let the whole pasuk be one command!?! It could be that by telling them to marry someone from their own tribe as advice and not a command--the Yetzer Hara was actually able to make an even stronger argument, for one isn't obligated to follow words of advice (unlike a command). Had they been commanded, the Yetzer Hara wouldn't have been able to argue that they didn't have to listen. Thus, it could be that the daughters of Zelophehad received an even greater reward by simply being given advice than had they been commanded. It is for this reason that Hashem told them to marry a man from their father's tribe as advice and not a command.


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What does mean mean in statistics?

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