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32 is an integer and so there is no sensible way of writing it as a fraction or mixed number.
Sets are not determined by algebraic expressions: they are simply collections of elements. The only requirement is that given any element, it is possible to decide whether or not it belongs to the set.The following, for example, is a set: {yellow, 7.9, April, moon, happy, squirrel}. It is a set of six things (words) I though of while writing this answer. No algebraic expressions will explain the meaning of that set.
A:Devout Christians have sought to find biblical meaning in just about every possible number, but there is limited agreement on what is clearly post-biblical speculation. For a number to have real meaning in the Bible, the original authors must have had that meaning in mind at the time of writing. While several numbers do have obvious significance in the Bible, especially the numbers 7, 17 and 40 (and other multiples of 20), there was no particular meaning given to other numbers.Lacking any clear meaning, some suggest that meaning can be found for the number 29 as the combination of 20, which they call the number of expectation, and 9, the number of judgement. Another suggestion is to give 29 the meaning 'departure'.
Scientific notation is a compact way of writing very large and very small numbers.
Number notation is a type of writing system that is used in math. The notations can be numbers or symbols and they have a semantic meaning.
Probably not. Any agreement made in writing can only be altered in writing.
Yes
It doesn't end or begin (if there isn't anything in writing). Could be 18 - could be 22.... You need to discuss with the other party and get something in writing (or preferably) file an agreed upon stipulation with the court.
That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties.That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties.That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties.That is unlikely. Generally, any agreement for the sale of real estate must be in writing and signed by the parties.
Any amendments to the original contract must be made in writing and signed by the parties to be enforceable. An offer or any discussion amounts to a proposal and the proposal must be reduced to writing. In your case, you have an agent stating that the seller agreed- not the seller. The agent's statement over the phone is not binding on the seller.
A treaty formalizes an agreement between to countries or parties putting it into writing so that there is no disagreement about the conditions of the agreement. It can not be broken, for it is an international agreement.
No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.
In a well-drafted contract document, there is a sub-article within an article usually titled "Miscellany" wherein it is specified which precise writing constitutes the only lawful reduction to writing of the agreement between the parties. The parties could, of course, agree that a certain, electronically-recorded copy is such an "official" document.
An agreement becomes unenforceable only due to technical defects such as absent in writing, insufficient stamp-age, etc.
As an independent contractor, you typically own the written material you create unless otherwise specified in a written agreement with the client. It's important to clarify ownership rights in the contract to avoid any disputes over ownership in the future.
The definition of a deed of absolute sale is an agreement between a seller and a purchaser legalizing the purchase of property. It can be done in writing and it legally binding.
Unless the unwilling signatory can show that he was coerced (forced) into signing the agreement YES.