No it would be a theorem if it was proven.
Cayley's Theorem states that every group G is isomorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group on G.
in this theorem we will neglect the given resistance and in next step mean as second step we will solve
More or less, yes.
a theorem rather, it has to be proven to become an accepted theory.
a theorem rather, it has to be proven to become an accepted theory.
As an abstract idea, a theorem would not be patentable.
There is more than one theorem by this name. In group theory, this refers to the statement that if a finite group G has a subgroup H, the order of H divides the order of G. In number theory, it is the statement that if p is a prime number and f(x) is a polynomial of degree n, then f(x) = 0 (mod p) has at most n integral solutions for 0 < x < p. There is also Lagrange's four-square theorem, which states that any positive integer can be expressed as the sum of four square numbers. Proofs can be found in Wikipedia.
the Pythagorean Theorem got its name from the man Pythagoras who came up with the theory.
It was Pythagoras and his theorem about right angle triangles.
A Mathematician named Pythagorean. That is why it is called Pythagorean's theorem. For every right triangle, this theorem will be true.
It can be proven to an extent but if the sides of a right angle triangle are equal in length then using Pythagoras' theorem is impossible to exactly find the length of its hypotenuse which will always be an irrational number that can't be determined.It is a theorem, not a theory. They are not the same. A theorem is shown to be true based on axioms, what is already known to be true. It does not need to be proven using a scientific method.