The probability of picking a 15 or a 16 from the random set [1-20] is 2 in 20, or 1 in 10, or 0.1.
99/100 > 15/16
The probability of NOT getting heads is (1/2)4=1/16 Therefore the probability of getting heads is 1-1/16=15/16
It is 1/8008
The probability is approx 15/16.
This is one of those cases where it is probably easier to think what is the probability of not doing it, then subtracting that from 1 to get the probability of doing it. To not get at least one head and one tail, you would have to get all heads or all tails. To get all heads, the probability is (1/2)5. To get all tails is the same probability; so double it to get the probability of either of those. 2(1/2)5=1/16. Subtract the 1/16 from 1 to get 15/16. Answer: 15/16
(6÷16)×100 = 37.5% probability
It is 15/16.
As the question is "what is the probability of getting at least one head" the correct way to answer this is to ask what is the probability of not getting any heads and then subtract this from 1.The probability of not getting a head in 4 flips = 0.54 (i.e. 0.5 * 0.5 * 0.5 * 0.5) = 1/16.Therefore the probability of getting at least one head is 1 - 1/16 = 15/16.
It is 17C5*(1/16)5*(15/16)12 = 0.00272 approx.
If you look at the as the probability of getting 1 or more tail in 4 coin tosses, you would then calculate the probability of tossing 4 heads in a row and subracting that from 1. The probability fo tossing 4 heads is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16. 1 - 1/16 = 15/16.
There are 52 - 16 = 36 cards that are not what you described. So the probability is 36 / 52
A: No