either 1 or 2 only
The number is 14.
No, 5 is not a factor of 42. A factor of a number divides it evenly with no remainder. When you divide 42 by 5, it does not divide evenly and leaves a remainder of 2. Therefore, 5 is not a factor of 42.
42
Yes, because 7 divides evenly into 42 with no remainder.
Any number that divides evenly by six is a multiple of six. Examples: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48.
No - neither number is a prime ! 42 divides by 2, 3 & 7 - and 93 divides by 3 !
11
42 divided by 14 equals 3
8 does not divide 42 evenly so 42/8 is not a whole number.
Oh honey, the Greatest Common Factor (GCF) for 42, 63, and 84 is 21. That's the largest number that divides evenly into all three of those numbers. So there you have it, simple as that!
The number is 42 as well as all the multiples of 42, which are infinite.
1 divides into 121 and 42.