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That is how equivalent fractions are made.

When fractions are multiplied together, the numerators are multiplied together and the denominators are multiplied together.

When the numerator and denominator of a fraction are both multiplied by the same non-zero number, the effect is of multiplying the original fraction by the non-zero number over the non-zero number, but any number over itself is 1, thus it is the same as multiplying by 1:

let a/b be a fraction and let n be the non-zero number, then:

(a x n)/(b x n) = a/b x n/n = a/b x 1 since any number divided by itself is 1.

Dividing by the same non-zero number is the same effect. However, in this case, it is a slightly different proof:

For this, it needs to be remembered that a fraction a/b is the same as a ÷ b.

And to divide by a fraction, the divisor is inverted (numerator and denominator swap places) and then multiplied.

let a/b be a fraction and n be the non-zero number, then:

(a ÷ n)/(b ÷ n) = (a ÷ n) ÷ (b ÷ n)

= a/n ÷ b/n

= a/n x n/b

= (a x n)/(n x b)

= (a x n)/(b x n) (since multiplication is commutative)

= a/b x n/n

= a/b x 1 (as before).

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Q: Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero numberthe same as multiplying or dividing the fraction by 1?
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Related questions

Why do you have to switch the numerator and denominator when dividing fractions?

This is because dividing by a number is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal.


Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and the denominator by the same number the same as multiplying or dividing the fraction by 1?

Because multiplying or dividing them by the same NON-ZERO number does not alter their ratio.


What is the definition of dividing a fraction?

Dividing a friction is multiplying by its reciprocal. The reciprocal of a fraction is the numerator and the denominator switched around.


Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero number the same as multiplying or dividing the fraction by 1?

because of mathematical equivalence: it doesn't change the result


Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero number the same as multiplying or dividing the fraction the fraction by 1?

Because doing so is equivalent to multiplying or dividing by x/x, which can be cancelled down to 1.


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123.456 is changed into fraction by multiplying and dividing it by a number such that both denominator and numerator don't contain decimal. Multiplying and dividing by 100, we get 123.456 as 123456/100.


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The numerator is the first nuber and the denominatoris the second.Ex. 1/2=1÷2=0.5


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Dividing the numerator and denominator by a common factor is how you simplify a fraction.


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