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Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero number the same as multiplying or dividing the fraction by 1?

Anonymous

∙ 12y ago

Updated: 4/28/2022

because of mathematical equivalence: it doesn't change the result

Wiki User

∙ 12y ago

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Q: Why is multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same nonzero number the same as multiplying or dividing the fraction by 1?

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What is 4.5 as a improper fraction?

To convert a decimal to an improper fraction, you first write the decimal as a fraction with the decimal as the numerator and a power of 10 as the denominator. In this case, 4.5 can be written as 4.5/1. To convert this to an improper fraction, you multiply both the numerator and denominator by 10 to get 45/10. Simplifying this fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 5 gives us the improper fraction 9/2.

Is 9 over 9 an improper fraction?

Yes. If the numerator (on top) is higher or equal to the denominator (bottom) than its an improper fraction. If the numerator and denominator are the same then the fraction is considered a whole number and always comes out 1. If the numerator is higher than the denominator then you must divide the numerator by the denominator.

What is the numerator and the denominator of a fraction in simplest form that is equivalent to 0.941941?

Numerator = 941941 Denominator = 1000000.

What is the number written above the line in a fraction?

That would be the numerator. The numerator is above the denominator. The numerator divided by the denominator would be equal to the quotient. So, numerator/denominator = quotient

What is 2 thirds of 360?

Here's its equation: x = 2/3 × 360/1 x = 720/3 x = 240 Finding a fraction of a whole number would be by multiplying that fraction with that whole number over 1. Then that multiplied numerator would be equal to dividing it by that fraction's denominator.

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