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Because they don't start from the same place ... i.e. their zeros are at different

temperatures. So their graphs don't both go through the origin, and you can't

change from one line to the other simply by changing the slope. There is also

a y-intercept involved.

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Q: Why is that when converting between Fahrenheit and Celsius temperatures you cannot simply multiply by a fraction equal to one as you have done for length and pressure conversions?
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Related questions

What is a fraction that compares two measurements of same quantity?

There need not be any such fraction: consider temperatures in the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales.


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Converting a fraction to a percent.


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A fraction that compares two equivalent measurement?

There is no particular name unless the two measurements are on absolute scales. For example, the fraction 5/41 compares the equivalent temperatures: 5 deg Celsius and 41 deg Fahrenheit. But the equivalent fraction 10/82 does not compare equivalent temperatures since 10 deg C = 50 deg F. So the fraction has no particular meaning and so no name.


A process temperature is foung to change by 33.4 degree Fahrenheit Calculate the change in Celsius?

Multiply the difference in Fahrenheit by the fraction 5/9, to get the difference in Celsius.Multiply the difference in Fahrenheit by the fraction 5/9, to get the difference in Celsius.Multiply the difference in Fahrenheit by the fraction 5/9, to get the difference in Celsius.Multiply the difference in Fahrenheit by the fraction 5/9, to get the difference in Celsius.


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The answer depends on what you want to convert to a fraction and a fraction of what other quantity.


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