There is no multiplicative inverse of 0. By definition, when you multiply a number by its multiplicative inverse, the product is 1. However, when you multiply 0 by anything, the product is 0. Those two statements could not logically co-exist if there were any multiplicative inverse of 0, so there is no such thing.
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
The multiplicative inverse of -3 is -(1/3) or negative one-third. The multiplicative inverse of a number is the number that you multiply it by to get a result of 1 (the multiplicative identity). So, since -3 times -(1/3) is 1, -(1/3) is the multiplicative inverse of -3. Similarly, +3 is the ADDITIVE inverse of -3. The additive inverse of a number is the number you add to it to get a result of 0 (the additive identity). So, since -3 + (+3) = 0, +3 is the additive inverse of -3. The original answer given here was that the multiplicative inverse of -3 is +3, which is flat incorrect.
38/7 x 7/38 = 1 = multiplicative inverse 38/7 + -38/7 = 0 = additive inverse
-9; the multiplicative inverse: -1/9
The multiplicative inverse of a number is the reciprocal of that number. In this case, the multiplicative inverse of -0.25 is -1 / -0.25, which simplifies to -4. This is because multiplying a number by its multiplicative inverse results in a product of 1, the multiplicative identity.
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0 is its own additive inverse. There is no multiplicative inverse for 0.
No because 0 is additive inverse the multiplicative inverse of a number is when you multiply that number by the m. inverse and still get that number.
The only real (or complex) number which does not have a multiplicative inverse is 0. There is nothing you can multiply by 0 to get 1.
0 does not have a multiplicative inverse. Further ,such is an inherent property of any field .
The additive inverse of a number a is the number -a because a + (-a) = 0. For 5.42, the additive inverse is -5.42 because 5.42 + (-5.42) = 0. The multiplicative inverse of a number a is the number 1/a because a(1/a) = 1. For 5.42, the multiplicative inverse is 1/5.42 = 0.1845.
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
The only problem is that it is not defined for 0.
The multiplicative inverse of -3 is -(1/3) or negative one-third. The multiplicative inverse of a number is the number that you multiply it by to get a result of 1 (the multiplicative identity). So, since -3 times -(1/3) is 1, -(1/3) is the multiplicative inverse of -3. Similarly, +3 is the ADDITIVE inverse of -3. The additive inverse of a number is the number you add to it to get a result of 0 (the additive identity). So, since -3 + (+3) = 0, +3 is the additive inverse of -3. The original answer given here was that the multiplicative inverse of -3 is +3, which is flat incorrect.
38/7 x 7/38 = 1 = multiplicative inverse 38/7 + -38/7 = 0 = additive inverse
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It is not - so you cannot explain it.