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No, because 1 times itself is one, making it not a square number. It has to equal a different number than the number times itself.

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A totally incorrect answer - on two counts.

(a) a square number does not have to be different and,

(b) even if that were the case, 1 is the square of -1 and -1 is not the same as 1.

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9y ago

What else can I help you with?