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Nope.


* * * * *


The above answer is so wrong!


Suppose f and g are two transformations where

f(x) = 2x, and

g(x) = x2


Then f(g(x)) = f(x2) = 2x2

While

g(f(x)) = g(2x) = (2x)2=4x2


Therefore f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) only when x = 0

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