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Is the inverse function of y equals x 2 -3 possible Give reasons?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
5
Noemy Grady
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoNot with the default definitions of the domain (the real numbers) and range (reals greater than or equal to -3). With these definition the original function is many-to-one (except at one point) and so the inverse function - if it existed - would be one-to-many. A function cannot be one-to-many.
However, if you redefine the domain of the original function so that it is the non-negative reals, the function becomes one-to-one and so does have an inverse which is x = +sqrt(y + 3) - the principal square root of (y+3).
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