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What is Infinity divided by Infinity?
It is indeterminate. There are many other inderterminate forms. It is not at all the same as 3/3 for example. You can see this with limits and some calculus rules. You must apply the L'Hospital theorem by deriving the numerator and the denominator of the equation that gave you infinity over infinity.-----------------Why ∞/∞ is not 1One could think that ∞/∞ = 1, but this is wrong.The answer depends on the kind of infinity: in fact, there are different kinds of infinity.For example, consider f(x) = x2 and g(x) = x. In the limit x→∞ of the function f(x)/g(x), we havelimx→∞ f(x)/g(x) = limx→∞ x2/x = limx→∞ x = ∞;so, both f(x) and g(x), in that limit, equal infinity, but f(x)/g(x) ≠ 1. If we have f(x) = 2x and g(x) = x, both f(x) and g(x) equal infinity (for x→∞), butlimx→∞ f(x)/g(x) = limx→∞ 2x/x = limx→∞ 2 = 2 ≠ 1.So you see that infinity is something to check everytime!--------------Addition: Since infinity is not a set number, you cannot assume that infinity divided by infinity would equal one. Infinity is an indeterminate number.1To touch on this whatever you take and divide by the same number will always give you one.2Infinity divided by infinity is not equal to 1, But it is undefined, not another infinity. This would help you:First, I am going to define this axiom (assumption) that infinity divided by infinity is equal to one:∞-∞= 1Since ∞ = ∞ + ∞, then we are going to substitute the first infinity in our axiom:∞ + ∞---∞= 1The next step is to split this fraction into two fractions:∞-∞+ ∞-∞= 1Next, substitute the axiom twice into the equation, we get:1 + 1 = 1Finally, this can be rewritten as:2 = 1Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.
What is 1 divided by infinity?
When we divide 1 by infinity, we are essentially taking the limit of 1 as the denominator approaches infinity. In mathematics, this limit is equal to zero. This is because as the denominator becomes infinitely large, the value of the fraction approaches zero. Therefore, 1 divided by infinity equals 0.
What is the set-builder notation of the problem the set of negative infinity and 0?
I think you mean zero to negative infinity is {x: x< or equal to 0}
Domain of t squared plus 1?
If t is real then [1 to infinity) ie all real numbers from 1 to infinity, including 1 but not infinity. If t is in the complex plane then the domain of t^2+1 is also the complex plane.
How do write in interval notation 0 is less than or equal to x while x is less than positive infinity?
That is, 0
what is infinity + 1?
it just equal infinity
Is infinity divided by infinity equal 1?
Firstly we don't know infinity value. If you divide any number by infinity then answer will be zero. Example is divide 100/3 by infinity ( let infinity is equal to 1/0). Then answer is 100/3/1/0 you will get zero.
What is infinity is divided by infinity?
1To touch on this whatever you take and divide by the same number will always give you one.2Infinity divided by infinity is not equal to 1, But it is undefined, not another infinity. This would help you:First, I am going to define this axiom (assumption) that infinity divided by infinity is equal to one:∞-∞= 1Since ∞ = ∞ + ∞, then we are going to substitute the first infinity in our axiom:∞ + ∞---∞= 1The next step is to split this fraction into two fractions:∞-∞+ ∞-∞= 1Next, substitute the axiom twice into the equation, we get:1 + 1 = 1Finally, this can be rewritten as:2 = 1Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.
What is the answer of 1 divided by infinity?
Firstly we don't know infinity value. If you divide any number by infinity then answer will be zero. Example is divide 100/3 by infinity ( let infinity is equal to 1/0). Then answer is 100/3/1/0 you will get zero.
If you add 1 to infinti would it equal the same as infinti plus 1 billion?
There is no such thing as infinity plus 1. You can not add to infinity.
What is common between equals and infinity?
infinity is 1+2+4+8+16...=? so there is is nothing common because infinity does not equal anything( unless you get technical then it equals -1)
Is infinity equal to minus 1?
technically, infinity is not a value and therefore cannot be defined as minus 1. There is a notion that infinity does not actually exist but only a human myth applied to those values larger than the human can calculate eg the size of the universe. Quoting Hawkins phrase "the universe stretches on infinitely" shows that infinity is not minus one. Therefore, infinity is not equal to minus 1.
What does 330 times infinity equal?
It is still infinity.
How can one divided by zero be infinity because if something remains undivided it will still be there?
the question is correct as per me because this is wat is known"1/0=infinity" then" 1=0xinfinity" " 0x(anything or infinity) =0" there fore "1 =0" which is not true since 1/0 is not equal to infinity the value of 1/0 is undefined
Is 0.9 repeating equal to 1?
Yes, 0.9999999.... repeating to infinity equals 1 sharp (not approximately).
What is Infinity divided by Infinity?
It is indeterminate. There are many other inderterminate forms. It is not at all the same as 3/3 for example. You can see this with limits and some calculus rules. You must apply the L'Hospital theorem by deriving the numerator and the denominator of the equation that gave you infinity over infinity.-----------------Why ∞/∞ is not 1One could think that ∞/∞ = 1, but this is wrong.The answer depends on the kind of infinity: in fact, there are different kinds of infinity.For example, consider f(x) = x2 and g(x) = x. In the limit x→∞ of the function f(x)/g(x), we havelimx→∞ f(x)/g(x) = limx→∞ x2/x = limx→∞ x = ∞;so, both f(x) and g(x), in that limit, equal infinity, but f(x)/g(x) ≠ 1. If we have f(x) = 2x and g(x) = x, both f(x) and g(x) equal infinity (for x→∞), butlimx→∞ f(x)/g(x) = limx→∞ 2x/x = limx→∞ 2 = 2 ≠ 1.So you see that infinity is something to check everytime!--------------Addition: Since infinity is not a set number, you cannot assume that infinity divided by infinity would equal one. Infinity is an indeterminate number.1To touch on this whatever you take and divide by the same number will always give you one.2Infinity divided by infinity is not equal to 1, But it is undefined, not another infinity. This would help you:First, I am going to define this axiom (assumption) that infinity divided by infinity is equal to one:∞-∞= 1Since ∞ = ∞ + ∞, then we are going to substitute the first infinity in our axiom:∞ + ∞---∞= 1The next step is to split this fraction into two fractions:∞-∞+ ∞-∞= 1Next, substitute the axiom twice into the equation, we get:1 + 1 = 1Finally, this can be rewritten as:2 = 1Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.
What does a number over infinity equal?
0. This is the same as the limit of 1/x as x approaches infinity, which is is 0. This is because 1/1,000 = .001 and 1/1,000,000 = .000001 and 1/100,000,000,000 = .0000000001 etc.
